Oksana
zig a zig ah
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- Jun 16, 2010
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I'm getting hammered about a future bet I took and I need some math stuff to shove it down some people's throats.
I was watching a tennis match tonight and liked the look of Melzer who was up against Federer. His odds to win the French Open in a few weeks time were $251 when I looked.
A poster said in my thread, after Melzer beat Federer that he could get $100-1 on Melzer winning the French. I remembered the $251 I saw about 30 minutes prior and quickly jumped on to see if it was still there. It was, and the largest Aussie book had already dropped his odds to $51.
So I bet the max of $20 (yeah I know) and then had others bet for me as well. I actually screwed up and thought I was only in for $50 but it turns out I'm in for $70.
An hour after I got my bet and posted it on 2 forums, it dropped to $51, so I beat it by $200. I obviously didn't have anything to do with the price drop - I was just trying to help people out. The book was just readjusting their lines to match the rest of the market.
I DO NOT expect this guy to win the whole tournament - no hope in hell. He's coming off an injury (which is the main reason for the $251) and then there's Nadal who is unbeatable right now.
But I expect him to be priced as a high favourite in the first few rounds unless he gets a horrendous draw and if he does, I can still bet the other guy and try to green out for a bit.
Are there any mathematical things I can throw in there to justify my bet? I'm basically being called an asswipe because he has no shot of winning the whole thing, which I KNOW, but getting him at 251 when the rest of the market was between $51-$100 means something. I'm sure of it. I have no plans of riding this one out - merely want to green it out.
Just can't explain it properly or convincingly.
I was watching a tennis match tonight and liked the look of Melzer who was up against Federer. His odds to win the French Open in a few weeks time were $251 when I looked.
A poster said in my thread, after Melzer beat Federer that he could get $100-1 on Melzer winning the French. I remembered the $251 I saw about 30 minutes prior and quickly jumped on to see if it was still there. It was, and the largest Aussie book had already dropped his odds to $51.
So I bet the max of $20 (yeah I know) and then had others bet for me as well. I actually screwed up and thought I was only in for $50 but it turns out I'm in for $70.
An hour after I got my bet and posted it on 2 forums, it dropped to $51, so I beat it by $200. I obviously didn't have anything to do with the price drop - I was just trying to help people out. The book was just readjusting their lines to match the rest of the market.
I DO NOT expect this guy to win the whole tournament - no hope in hell. He's coming off an injury (which is the main reason for the $251) and then there's Nadal who is unbeatable right now.
But I expect him to be priced as a high favourite in the first few rounds unless he gets a horrendous draw and if he does, I can still bet the other guy and try to green out for a bit.
Are there any mathematical things I can throw in there to justify my bet? I'm basically being called an asswipe because he has no shot of winning the whole thing, which I KNOW, but getting him at 251 when the rest of the market was between $51-$100 means something. I'm sure of it. I have no plans of riding this one out - merely want to green it out.
Just can't explain it properly or convincingly.